12 Mar
2006
12 Mar
'06
9:31 a.m.
I'm not talking about invalidating the patent as of today, to favor eg
ROS, but I'm rather asking how they got could file the patent? Didn't
IBM react? And moreover, was it legal for them at that point of time
to file a patent regarding something that already existed. (Namely a
file system capable of storing a long and a short file name for the
same file)
/nitro2k01
On 3/12/06, Oliver Schneider <Borbarad(a)gmxpro.net> wrote:
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Reminds me...
didn't OS/2 have the capability to store both short and
long file names on a FAT16 partiton? How does that go with MS'
patents? Where MS really allowed to file a patent on something that
already existed?
I think the actual question is how you want to invalidate the
patent. As far
as I remember it costs even money if you want to attack a patent that you
think is prior-art. How does that go with the work of volunteers...? I am
involved in other FOSS projects and I would not want to sue someone else on
behalf of a project or to be sued instead of the project. At last it is a
volunteer's work ...
Just my 2 cents,
Oliver
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